Serious gun-violence question for research and/or discussion...

uafan4life

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During a discussion I was having earlier regarding gun violence, a couple questions came up for which no one had a legitimate answer. Since we have a much larger group of people here on the Non-Sports board, I thought I'd post it here. If anyone wants to research the answers to these questions, feel free. If I have time, feel like it, and am able to successfully find the answers I'll post them in this thread - assuming no one else does. In the interim, I'd be interested in seeing what everyone thinks the answers will be. So, here goes...

1. In this decade, i.e., either the last 10 years or just the 2010s, what percentage of people murdered by firearms were murdered by the person or an immediate family member of the person who legally purchased the firearm?

2. How does that percentage compare to past decades?
 

uafan4life

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If this into isn't in the FBI crime stats, I'm not sure how you'd get it.
Yes, it appears as though it'll take some serious looking to locate - if it is indeed possible. Quick Google searches on our phones turned up a number of opinion pieces, some local- or state-level statistics, and one interesting piece regarding a survey of prison inmates but nothing that looked like concrete, nationwide statistics.

However, in the interest of discussion, what would you guesstimate the answers to be?
 

uafan4life

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Give or take 10% that's probably close to being right.
Most of the statistics I've seen point toward the opposite being more likely.

After all, somewhere around 60% of people charged with murder have prior felony or other convictions that prevent them from legally owning a firearm. Assuming the percentage of murderers is relatively close to the percentage of those murdered, do you really think at least half of that ≈60% obtained the firearm they used from an immediate family member who had legally purchased it or else had legally purchased it prior to their conviction(s)? Of course, even that would mean basically all of the other ≈40% of people charged with murder would have to fall into the legal owner or immediate family member category, as well.
 

2003TIDE

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That seems very high. Any logic behind it, or is it just a swag?
Why do you think it is high? I just feel like most people are killed with a legally purchased gun. Just my gut feeling. Lost of suicides and domestic stuff. It’s not like 80% of it is gang violence with scratched off serial numbers
 

uafan4life

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Why do you think it is high? I just feel like most people are killed with a legally purchased gun. Just my gut feeling. Lost of suicides and domestic stuff. It’s not like 80% of it is gang violence with scratched off serial numbers
Well, these questions were specifically regarding murder victims as opposed to suicide victims.
 

NationalTitles18

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Most of the statistics I've seen point toward the opposite being more likely.

After all, somewhere around 60% of people charged with murder have prior felony or other convictions that prevent them from legally owning a firearm. Assuming the percentage of murderers is relatively close to the percentage of those murdered, do you really think at least half of that ≈60% obtained the firearm they used from an immediate family member who had legally purchased it or else had legally purchased it prior to their conviction(s)? Of course, even that would mean basically all of the other ≈40% of people charged with murder would have to fall into the legal owner or immediate family member category, as well.
Not sure about "legally purchased", but most are killed by someone they know.
 

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