Poll: Do you own a firearm?

Do you own a firearm? How many?

  • Yes

    Votes: 29 55.8%
  • No

    Votes: 14 26.9%
  • I own 1 firearm

    Votes: 4 7.7%
  • I own more than 1 firearm

    Votes: 34 65.4%

  • Total voters
    52
In my view, states have the authority to ban guns outright if they want to.
The federal government, including the federal judiciary, has no authority over that.
What if a state decided to not honor the 1st Amendment or the 4th amendment? Would you say that all civil rights as defined in the Constitution and its amendments are only applicable to the federal government or just the Second Amendment?
 
What if a state decided to not honor the 1st Amendment or the 4th amendment? Would you say that all civil rights as defined in the Constitution and its amendments are only applicable to the federal government or just the Second Amendment?
What is the precise verbiage of the 1st Amendment to the federal constitution?
 
Going to be interesting; if you end up with a patchwork of states where they’re illegal, you may have a transport problem.
As it is now, I’m not aware of any “compact”-type agreements where you can transport, on the ground, weed from a state where it’s legal to another state where it’s legal, while passing through a state where it’s not without being subject to arrest. I think most states are supplying their own here, but if not I’d appreciate any enlightenment on this issue.
Because they don’t manufacture assault weapons in all states, and if they want to ship them a long distance they’d have to either air freight (expensive), or take circuituous routes which, depending on which states outlaw them, could also be expensive.
Since there was previously a federal ban on them, I think there will be more than a few states outlawing them. It’s a step in the right direction to try and eliminate the large casualty mass shootings (like Vegas and Uvalde) where those type of weapons were used.
The main problem arises in attempting to find a definition for what "those type of weapons" really are...
 
OK. Look at McDonald vs. City of Chicago, where the court incorporated 2nd Amendment rights to the states via the 14th Amendment...
I think that is precisely the point. The court incorporated the 2nd amendment. The Constitution did not do that.
I would be seriously indebted to anyone who could point out that the drafters of the XIV amendment stated that by intended that this amendment would incorporate the bill of rights and apply it to restrict states' powers. They talked a lot about the rights that Congress attempted to protect by freemen via the Civil Rights Act of 1866 (e.g. to make and enforce contracts, to sue, be parties, give evidence), which President Johnson vetoed. Congress was "going over the president's head" by adopting the XIV Amendment. Once the XIV Amendment was adopted in 1868, Congress then readopted the Civil Rights Act in 1870.
 
What if a state decided to not honor the 1st Amendment
State's have constitutions as well.
Virginia's stipulates, "the freedoms of speech and of the press are among the great bulwarks of liberty, and can never be restrained except by despotic governments; that any citizen may freely speak, write, and publish his sentiments on all subjects, being responsible for the abuse of that right; that the General Assembly shall not pass any law abridging the freedom of speech or of the press, nor the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for the redress of grievances."
 
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What is the precise verbiage of the 1st Amendment to the federal constitution?
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.

I'm by no means a Constitutional lawyer, but from what little I understand the Supremacy Clause has been applied to encompass all rights outlined in the Constitution and its amendments as well as any other law in conflict between the state and federal governments, even if it says "Congress" which the 2nd or 4th amendments don't.
 
State's have constitutionals as well.
Virginia's stipulates, "the freedoms of speech and of the press are among the great bulwarks of liberty, and can never be restrained except by despotic governments; that any citizen may freely speak, write, and publish his sentiments on all subjects, being responsible for the abuse of that right; that the General Assembly shall not pass any law abridging the freedom of speech or of the press, nor the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for the redress of grievances."
If a state constitution conflicts with the federal constitution the federal takes precedence. If Virginia wanted to amend their constitution to change what it says now it would be immediately struck down.

 
All this is arguing about how many angels can dance on the head of a pin. The Constitution and its subsequent amendments mean exactly what the SCOTUS says they mean, regardless of your personal views as to what the language should mean. That's one of the first things they teach you in law school. Of course the 1st is incorporated via the 14th. That was decided in 1925 in Gitlow vs. New York...
 
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.

I'm by no means a Constitutional lawyer, but from what little I understand the Supremacy Clause has been applied to encompass all rights outlined in the Constitution and its amendments as well as any other law in conflict between the state and federal governments, even if it says "Congress" which the 2nd or 4th amendments don't.
Well, no. The supremacy clause says the Constitution is the supreme law of the land. In other words, when the federal government (which was created by the federal Constitution) exceeds its authority, the Constitution says the federal government is wrong. The federal government is subordinate to the Constitution, not the master of it.
The problem with federal incorporation is that no advocate of the ratification of the Constitution, the BoR (and no advocate of the XIV amendment) ever stated, "We should ratify because this will apply the Bill of Rights to the states.'" I have provided a mountain of evidence (in the ratification thread) that advocates of ratification assured their neighbors that the federal powers were enumerated and limited to those enumerated.
The Blaine Amendment* (1875) was proposed to prevent the states from establishing a religion, but no one said at that time, "We have already done that, when we ratified the XIV Amendment. The XIV incorporates the BoR against the states."
The courts "discovered" this later.

* No State shall make any law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; and no money raised by taxation in any State for the support of public schools, or derived from any public fund therefor, nor any public lands devoted thereto, shall ever be under the control of any religious sect; nor shall any money so raised or lands so devoted be divided between religious sects or denominations.
 
Well, no. The supremacy clause says the Constitution is the supreme law of the land. In other words, when the federal government (which was created by the federal Constitution) exceeds its authority, the Constitution says the federal government is wrong. The federal government is subordinate to the Constitution, not the master of it.
The problem with federal incorporation is that no advocate of the ratification of the Constitution, the BoR (and no advocate of the XIV amendment) ever stated, "We should ratify because this will apply the Bill of Rights to the states.'" I have provided a mountain of evidence (in the ratification thread) that advocates of ratification assured their neighbors that the federal powers were enumerated and limited to those enumerated.
The Blaine Amendment* (1875) was proposed to prevent the states from establishing a religion, but no one said at that time, "We have already done that, when we ratified the XIV Amendment. The XIV incorporates the BoR against the states."
The courts "discovered" this later.

* No State shall make any law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; and no money raised by taxation in any State for the support of public schools, or derived from any public fund therefor, nor any public lands devoted thereto, shall ever be under the control of any religious sect; nor shall any money so raised or lands so devoted be divided between religious sects or denominations.
All that is your opinion of how it should have been construed on your part. As I said way above, the Constitution means exactly what the SCOTUS says it means. Nothing more and nothing less. Constitutional scholars' opinions mean not a whit. We have to live in the real world...
 
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I really try to keep my arm from lighting on fire, so not right now. Why anyone would willingly light their arm on fire unless they're a stunt person is beyond me.
 
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All that is your opinion of how it should have been construed on your part. As I said way above, the Constitution means exactly what the SCOTUS says it means. Nothing more and nothing less. Constitutional scholars' opinions mean not a whit. We have to live in the real world...
Of course we have to live in the real world. If someone goes into a federal court and denies the court has jurisdiction over any power not enumerated in the Constitution is apt to get a judicial decision he does not like (or, alternatively, be committed to an insane asylum).

I guess my views are colored by readings of Thomas Jefferson, who said “The Judiciary of the United States is the subtle corps of sappers and miners constantly working under ground to undermine the foundations of our confederated fabric."

If the people in their constitution-making capacity say, Federal government, “You cannot do x,” (and I believe the people of the United States have said as much) and then their servant, the court, says, “No, I will not respect that limit. The Constitution says what I say it means.” That strikes me as an elitist view and is kind of an insult to the idea that a people can govern themselves.

Lincoln said, “the intention of the lawgiver is the law.” When it comes to adopting a constitution, the people of the states were the lawgivers. I am not sure what the people are supposed to do about that level of insubordination by the court (and it is insubordination, when the court says, screw you people. I’m going to do what I want to do because I am unelected and unaccountable). They could impeach/remove the violator and amend the Constitution, but that puts the burden on the people. And what is to say their servant, the court, will respect this new limit any more than it did the previous limit? Conlaw ≠ case law, despite how despite how conlaw is taught in law schools. Constitutional law predates the first federal case, and I believe education of lawyers and especially judges ought to include readings of the state conventions that ratified the Constitution, where (as Madison said), it “rec[eived] all the authority which it possesses.”

Or maybe, this is the equivalent of constitutional deism. Among the Founders, Deists believed that the Almighty created the universe, wound up the “celestial clock,” set it running, and walked away. Constitutional deists would argue that the Founders created the system, got it started, and then forever surrendered control to the federal authorities. As long as justices are nominated by the president and confirmed by the senate, then any decision they made is legitimate. Two problems exist with this view. First, there is no record of any Founder favoring unlimited submission to federal usurpation but, (second), on the contrary, made provisions for resistance, of which the 2nd amendment is part.

I just like to take every opportunity to remind federal judges that the people, in their constitution-making authority, already debated and decided against unenumerated federal powers. There are no legitimate “penumbras or emanations.” To argue for them is self-disqualifying. It demonstrates ipso facto that the speaker does not know what he is talking about.

I would add, that if there was to be unrestrained submission to federal authorities, the one branch the Founders were look to least would be the unelected, unaccountable judiciary.

My critique of the “law schools say the Constitution means what the court says it does” school is that the evidence and argumentation indicate the Founders clearly intended the federal government to be limited to the powers expressly enumerated. The judges, on the other hand, have “it says so because I want it to be so.”

In conclusion, it is possible that the court refused to overturn the state statute because they agreed, at least to some degree, with the concept of enumerated federal powers.
 
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