Three things really bother me about targeting as it stands in terms of definition. First, wasn’t the REAL reason for implementation to remove egregious, malicious and dangerous hits from the game? Elimination of the idiotic spearing by one player on a defenseless player? But intent is never considered. I’ve seen in recent years ”cheap crap” where the intent to injure was clear but targeting wasn’t called. Then I’ve seen plays where it was simply two players playing the game, bodies collide and someone gets pitched out of game because cause of “well it falls within the definition“.This was one of the more egregious examples of the over-litigation of targeting that I have seen. There was NO WAY Jefferson could have done anything differently to avoid that hit. Nothing.
Second, to me it seems the onus to avoid the hit almost always falls of the defender. What the heck is a defender suppose to do if they “breakdown“ to tackle through the ball carrier and suddenly the offensive guy drops their pad level so the defender Is no longer driving through the chest but up toward the head and neck? Such was the case with Jefferson last night.
Finally, there is NO consistency in how it is apply. As I posted last night. I use to THINK I didn‘t know what constitutes targeting. Now I KNOW I don‘t know what constitutes targeting.